Practice Paper of NEET PG: Important Questions of SPM

The Important Questions of SPM for NEET PG exam:

1. Safe yield of a water supply source is the yield that is adequate for?
A. 80% of the year
B. 90% of the year
C. 95% of the year
D. The whole of the year

Correct answer : C. 95% of the year

  • Water for meeting the requirements of a community can be obtained from various sources like rain, surface water and groundwater.
  • The safe yield of a source of water is defined as the yield that is adequate for 95% of the year.

 

2. Minimum depth for the lining of a sanitary well is?
A. 10 feet
B. 20 feet
C. 35 feet
D. 50 feet

Correct answer : B. 20 feet

  • The lining of a sanitary well should go down at least 20 feet to ensure that water enters from the bottom and not from the sides of the well.
  • The lining should extend upwards for about 2-3 feet above the ground.

 

3. Quantity of water available per capita considered adequate to meet the needs of all urban domestic purposes?
A. 100-150 L
B. 150-200 L
C. 200-250 L
D. 250-300 L

Correct answer : B. 150-200 L

  • 2 L is the amount of water required for meeting the physiological requirements of the body everyday.
  • But water is also required for many other activities of daily life such as cooking, washing, bathing etc.
  • Taking this into consideration, 150-200 L of water per capita is the amount considered adequate to meet the needs of all urban domestic purposes.

 

4. Screening test specificity is the ability of a test to correctly identify:
A. False positives
B. True positives
C. True negatives
D. False negatives

Correct answer : C. True negatives

  • Specificity of a test is the ability to correctly identify True negatives. It is calculated as follows:
  • Specificity = Number of true negatives / (Number of true negatives + Number of false positives )

 

5. All are true about randomized control trial except?

A. Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups must be similar
B. Investigator bias can be minimized by double blinding
C. The sample size depends on the hypothesis tested
D. Drop outs should be excluded from the analysis

Correct answer : D. Drop outs should be excluded from the analysis

Based on Intention to Treat analysis, the drop outs should also be included in the analysis to prevent an error in the result.

6. Non deliberate cultural practice with anti mosquito effect is?

A. Use of mosquito repellents
B. Use of bed nets
C. Use of alkaline detergent for washing clothes
D. Use of larvicides

Correct answer : C. Use of alkaline detergent for washing clothes

Use of alkaline detergent for washing clothes is a non deliberate cultural practice with anti mosquito effect. Mosquito larva cannot survive in alkaline water.

MOSQUITO CONTROL

Gambusia affinis – larvicidal fish

  • Anti larval – Source reduction (elimination of mosquito breeding grounds), use of larvicides (surface films – mineral oils, stomach poisons – Paris Green, contact poisons), biological agents like fungi, nematodes and fish (eg: larvicidal fish – Gambusia affinis)
  • Anti adult – Insecticides like DDT (organochlorine), Malathion (organophosphate) and pyrethroids for space sprays and residual sprays. Genetically modified adults are also used.
  • Prevention of mosquito bites – Bed nets, mosquito repellents, insect screens for homes.

 

7. A sewage worker with fever and jaundice presented to the emergency department. Lab investigations revealed increased blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine – indicative of renal failure. Which of the following antibiotics is preferred in this patient?

A. Erythromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Penicillin G
D. Ciprofloxacin

Correct answer : C. Penicillin G

  • The history of fever and jaundice in a sewage worker with features of renal failure is suggestive of Weil’s disease
  • Intravenous penicillin G is the preferred antibiotic for treatment of Weil’s disease
  • Erythromycin can be used as an alternative
  • In mild cases of leptospirosis, oral therapy with ampicillin / tetracycline is given
  • Doxycycline is used for prophylaxis against leptospirosis

 

8. Modes of disease transmission by vectors are all except?

A. Regurgitation
B. Biting
C. Ingestion
D. Rubbing of of infected excrement

Correct answer : C. Ingestion

Modes of disease transmission by vectors are:

  • Biting
  • Regurgitation of ingested material
  • Rubbing of of infected excrement
  • Contamination by body fluids of the vector

 

9. Tetracycline is used for the prophylaxis of?

A. Brucellosis
B. Leptospirosis
C. Cholera
D. Meningitis

Correct answer : C. Cholera

Drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of cholera is tetracycline. Doxycycline can also be used. Chemoprophylaxis is given for household contacts of cholera patients / in case of an outbreak in a closed community. But it is not given in case of mass outbreaks of cholera.

 

10. Which is not a synthetic pyrethroid?

A. DDT

B. Proparthrin

C. Cypermethrin

D. Permethrin

Correct answer : A. DDT

DDT is an organochlorine compound. The other 3 are pyrethroids.

 

11. Mass chemoprophylaxis in an endemic area is given for all except?

A. Leprosy

B. Yaws

C. Trachoma

D. Filariasis

Correct answer : A. Leprosy

Mass chemoprophylaxis is not given for preventing leprosy.

 

12. JSY is an acronym for?

A. Janani Suraksha Yojana

B. Jeevan Suraksha Yojana

C. Jeevan Shakthi Yojana

D. Jan Suraksha Yojana

Correct answer : A. Janani Suraksha Yojana

Janani Suraksha Yojana is a centrally funded scheme launched in 2005 offering maternity benefits. It aims at lowering maternal mortality and infant mortality by encouraging institutional deliveries.

 

13. A case of Acute Flaccid Paralysis should be kept under surveillance for residual paralysis for?

A. 30 days

B. 45 days

C. 60 days

D. 90 days

Correct answer : C. 60 days

 

14. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act was passed by the Government of India in?
A. 1984
B. 1993
C. 2000
D. 2004

Correct answer : C. 2000

JUVENILE JUSTICE (CARE AND PROTECTION OF CHILDREN) ACT, 2000

It was passed by the Government of India in the year 2000. It was amended in 2006. (Juvenile Justice Act was passed in 1986).

An Act to consolidate and amend the law relating to juveniles in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection, by providing for proper care, protection and treatment by catering to their development needs, and by adopting a child-friendly approach in the adjudication and disposition of matters in the best interest of children and for their ultimate rehabilitation through various institutions established under this enactment.

 

15. Movement across socioeconomic levels is known as?

A. Social insurance

B. Social mobility

C. Social equality

D. Social upliftment

Correct answer : B. Social mobility

  • The socioeconomic status of an individual / family can change over timedue to the change in their literacy, job and income
  • An individual belonging to a low socioeconomic class can move to a higher class by means of better income
  • Similarly, an individual in a higher class may move to a lower class due to loss of his job
  • This change in socioeconomic status of an individual / family over time is known as Social Mobility

16. True statement about Himalayan Goitre Belt:

a) 2400 Km wide

b) Largest goitre belt in the world

c) Extends from Kashmir in the west to Naga hills in the east

d) All of them

Correct answer: d) All of them

 

17. The usefulness of a ‘screening test` in a community depends on its :
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Reliability
D. Predictive value

Correct answer : A. Sensitivity

A screening test should be sensitive to detect maximum possible cases. Specificity is not as important. After screening, we can apply a confirmatory test with high specificity.

 

18. If the grading of diabetes is classified as mild, moderate and severe the scale of measurement used is :
A. Interval
B. Nominal
C. Ordinal
D. Ratio

Correct answer : C. Ordinal

Here data can be arranged in a useful order. But there is no info regarding the size of each interval.

 

19. If prevalence of diabetes is 10%, the probability that three people selected at random from the population will have diabetes is:
A. 0.01
B. 0.03
C. 0.001
D. 0.003

Correct answer : C. 0.001

Prevalence of diabetes = 0.1
Probability that any one person selected from the population will have diabetes = 0.1
Probability that 3 people selected from the population will all have diabetes =0.1*0.1*0.1 = 0.001

 

20. If the systolic blood pressure in a population has a mean of 130 mm Hg and a median of l40 mm Hg, the distribution is said to be?
A. Symmetrical
B. Positively skewed
C. Negatively skewed
D. Either positively or negatively skewed depending on the Standard deviation

Correct answer : C. Negatively skewed

Median is greater than mean. Hence it is negatively skewed.

 

21. lf each value of a given group of observations is multiplied by 10 the standard deviation of the resulting observations is :
A. Original std. Deviation x 10
B. Original std. Deviation /10
C. Original std. Deviation – l0
D. Original std. Deviation itself

Correct answer : A. Original std. Deviation x 10

If we substitute 10x for x in the above formula, we can find that the SN (standard deviation of N values) will become 10 SN. (After squaring and finding square root)

 

22. Multi-purpose worker scheme in India was initiated following the recommendation of:
A. Srivastava Committee
B. Bhore Committee
C. Kartar Singh Committee
D. Mudaliar Committee

Correct answer : C. Kartar Singh Committee

 

23. Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention of heart diseases include all of the following except?
A. A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption
B. Reduction in fat intake to 20-30 percent of caloric intake
C. Consumption of saturated fats be limited to less than 10% of total energy intake
D. Reduction of cholesterol to below l00mg per kcal per day

Correct answer : A. A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption

WHO recommends an increase in consumption of complex carbohydrates.

 

24. “Five clean practices” under strategies for elimination of neonatal tetanus include all except :
A. Clean surface for delivery
B. Clean hand of the attendant
C. New blade for cutting the cord
D. Clean airway

Correct answer : D. Clean airway

The 5 clean practices are:

  1. Clean hands
  2. Clean delivery surface
  3. Clean cord care
  4. Clean blade for cutting cord
  5. Clean cord tie and no application on cord stump

 

25. The National Population Policy of India has set the following goals except :
A. To bring down Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels by 2015
B. To reduce the Infant Mortality Rate to 30 per l000 live births
C. To reduce the Maternal Mortality Rate to 100 per 100000 live births
D. 100 percent registration of births, deaths, marriages and pregnancies

Correct answer : A. To bring down Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels by 2015

The goal of The National Population Policy of India is to bring down Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels by 2010.

26. The following statements are true about Intrauterine devices (IUD) except:
A. Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD
B. The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and Cu—T 200 are similar
C. IUD can be used for Emergency Contraception within 5 days
D. Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 years.

Correct answer : A. Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD

Multiload Cu-375 is a second generation IUD. Progestasert and Levonova are third generation IUCD’s.

 

27. The following statements about breast milk are true except :
A. The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months
B. The coefficient of uptake of iron in breast milk is 70%
C. Calcium absorption of human milk is better than that of cow’s milk
D. It provides about 65 kcals per 100 ml

Correct answer : A. The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months

The maximum milk output is seen at 5-6 months (730ml/day). At 12 months, it is only 525ml/day.

 

28. The current recommendation for breast feeding is that :
A. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 6 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods
B. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 4 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods
C. Colostrum is the most suitable food for a new born baby but it is best avoided in first 2 days
D. The baby should be allowed to breast—feed till one year of age

Correct answer : A. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 6 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods

 

29. A 10 month old child weighing 8kg has Bitot spots in both eyes. Which of the following is the most appropriate schedule to prescribe vitamin A to this child ?
A. 2 lakh units intramuscular (IM) on day 0, 14
B. 1 lakh units IM on day 0, 14
C. 2 lakh units IM on day 0, 1 and 14
D. 1 lakh units IM on day O, 1 and 14

Correct answer : D. 1 lakh units IM on day O, 1 and 14

WHO treatment schedule for active xerophthalmia:
– Medication given on day 0, 1 and 14
– Same dose on all 3 days
– Oral route preferred
– Age < 1year / any age with weight < 8kg – 50000 IU orally – Age > 1 year – 2 lakh IU orally / 1 lakh IU IM

 

30. All of the following statements about leprosy are true except :
A. Multibacillary leprosy is diagnosed when there are more than 5 skin patches
B. New case detection rate is an indicator for incidence of leprosy
C. A defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken treatment for 6 months or more
D. The target for elimination of leprosy is to reduce the prevalence to less than l per 10,000 population.

Correct answer : C. A defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken treatment for 6 months or more

The term ‘defaulter’ is used in patients with tuberculosis. They are the ones who return with sputum smear positivity after leaving treatment for atleast 2 months.

 

How to Join NEET Program on Eckovation

Step 1: Download Eckovation App

Step 2: Join the group using group code: 136982

 

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *