Practice Paper of NEET PG: Important Questions of ENT

Ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialists diagnoses and treats disorders of the ear, nose, throat, and  neck, including:

  • Hearing or balance, ear infections, and disorders of the outer and inner ear
  • Problems with the nasal cavity and sinuses, including allergies, adenoids, problems with smelling, and difficulties with breathing through the nose
  • The voice box (or larynx) and upper esophagus, including the voice, tonsils, and problems with breathing and swallowing.

The Important Questions of ENT for NEET PG exam Part 2:

1. Most common laser used in laryngeal surgery is?

A. Argon laser

B. Nd YAG laser

C. CO2 laser

D. KTP laser

Correct answer : C. CO2 laser

CO2 does not penetrate into the deep tissue, hence there is decreased risk of scarring.


2. Otoacoustic emissions arise from?

A. Inner hair cells

B. Outer hair cells

C. Organ or Corti

D. None of the above

 Correct answer : B. Outer hair cells


3. Structure not seen in bronchoscopy?

A. Vocal cords

B. Trachea

C. First segmental division of bronchi

D. Subcarinal lymph nodes

Correct answer : D. Subcarinal lymph nodes

  • Structures seen in bronchoscopy are : Uvula, Epiglottis, Vocal cords, Larynx, Trachea, Carina, Segmental bronchi, Subsegmental bronchi
  • Subcarinal lymph nodes cannot be seen as they are located outside the trachea


4. Gold standard test for laryngopharyngeal reflux is?

A. Esophageal motility study

B. Barium swallow

C. 24 hour double probe pH monitoring

D. Esophageal biopsy

Correct answer : C. 24 hour double probe pH monitoring

Gold standard test for laryngopharyngeal reflux is 24 hour double probe (lower esophagus and pharynx) pH monitoring.

5. Androphonia can be corrected by doing:
A. Type l Thyroplasty
B. Type 2 Thyroplasty
C. Type 3 Thyroplasty
D. Type 4 Thyroplasty

Correct answer : D. Type 4 Thyroplasty

Androphonia refers to masculinisation of female voice. This can be treated by type 4 thyroplasty. It increases the length and tension of the cord, thereby increasing the pitch of voice.


6. The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhoea is:
A. Sphenoid sinus
B. Frontal sinus
C Cirbriform plate
D. Tegmen tympani

Correct answer : C Cirbriform plate


7. The most common and earliest manifestation of carcinoma of the glottis is:
A. Hoarseness
B. Haemoptysis
C. Cervical lymph nodes
D. Stridor

Correct answer : A. Hoarseness

Carcinoma glottis affects the mobility of vocal cord and produces hoarseness of voice. This helps in early identification of disease.


8. Use of seigel’s speculum during examination of the ear provides all except:
A. Magnification
B. Assessment of movement of the tympanic membrane
C. Removal of foreign body from the ear
D. As applicator for the powdered antibiotic of ear

Correct answer : C. Removal of foreign body from the ear

Uses of Seigel’s speculum

  • Assess movement of tympanic membrane
  • Introduce medicine into the middle ear
  • To have a magnified view of ear pathology
  • To assess vestibular function by fistula test


9. A 5 year old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy. On the day of surgery he had running nose, temperature 37.5°C and dry cough. Which of the following should be the most appropriate decision for surgery?
A. Surgery should be cancelled
B. Can proceed for surgery if chest is clear and there is no history of asthma
C. Should get Xray chest before proceeding for surgery
D. Cancel surgery for 3 weeks and patient to be put on antibiotics

Correct answer : D. Cancel surgery for 3 weeks and patient to be put on antibiotics

Upper respiratory tract infection is a contraindication for tonsillectomy. So the surgery should be cancelled and the patient should be put on antibiotics.


10. During inspiration the main current of airflow in a normal nasal cavity is through:
A. Middle part of the cavity in middle meatus in a parabolic curve
B. Lower part of the cavity in the inferior meatus in a parabolic curve
C. Superior part of the cavity in the superior meatus
D. Through olfactory area

Correct answer : A. Middle part of the cavity in middle meatus in a parabolic curve


11. Sensorineural deafness may be feature of all, except:
A. Nail patella syndrome
B. Distal renal tubular acidosis
C. Bartter syndrome
D. Alport syndrome

Correct answer : A. Nail patella syndrome


12. Which of the following conditions causes the maximum hearing loss?
A. Ossicular disruption with intact tympanic membrane
B. Disruption of malleus and incus as well tympanic membrane
C. Partial fixation of the stapes footplate
D. Ottitis media with effusion

Correct answer : A. Ossicular disruption with intact tympanic membrane (Average hearing loss is 54 dB)


13. Which is the investigation of choice in assessing hearing loss in neonates?
A. Impedance audiometry
B. Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA)
C. Free field audiometry
D. Behavioral audioimetry

Correct answer :B. Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA)


14. A 30 year old male is having Attic cholesteatoma of left ear with lateral sinus thrombophlebitis. Which of the following will be the operation of choice?
A. lntact canal wall mastoidectomy
B. Simple mastoidectomy with Tympanoplasty
C. Canal wall down mastoidectomy
D. Mastoidectomy with cavity obliteration

Correct answer : C. Canal wall down mastoidectomy

Attic cholesteatoma is an indication for modified radical mastoidectomy. (Canal wall down mastoidectomy)

15. Which of the following is not a typical feature of malignant otitis externa?
A. Caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Patients are usually old
C. Mitotic figures are high
D. Patient is immune compromised

Correct answer : C. Mitotic figures are high

Malignant otitis externa is an infection, not a malignancy. Hence no mitotic figures are found.

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